**TL;DR- Capitalism is criminogenic due to the way it encourages greed and materialism, as well as it's generally exploitative nature.** Writer, Balzac, observed that rich capitalists often become rich through exploitation of the proletariat, while Friedrich Engels believed that it is [unfair as all blame is passed onto the proletariat (e.g. benefit fraud) and immunity is given to the bourgeoisie] (https://sociologysaviour.wordpress.com/2016/02/11/marxism-and-crime/) (i.e. capitalism allows the bourgeoisie to get away with said exploitation due to their power and position). Balzac and Engels expressed these concerns many years ago. Howevr, their ideas are still very much relevant today. An example of big company exploitation would be food and beverage company, Nestlé, and their many infamous scandals (e.g. the [infant formula] (https://www.dailydot.com/unclick/nestle-california-bottled-water/) scandal, union-busting, and more recently, the water scandal in California, which sparked internet outrage). The motivation behind Nestle's outrageous activity was money, initiating faster, more efficient production, and in short, capitalism. Therefore, capitalism is criminogenic, even while companies such as Nestlé get away with their actions.

**Tl;DR: Greed and crimes do not require capitalism.** Many like to believe capitalism incentivizes greed and thus crimes. The theory may look tempting on the surface, backed by some of the more exploitative elements of capitalism. However, let’s apply some basic research methods to this theory. To establish casualty, an independent variable (capitalism) must have significant influence over a dependent variable (crimes). Hence, if capitalism does encourage crimes, one must expect to see fewer crimes in a different system. That hypothesis seems counterintuitive and ahistorical. From 1300 to today, homicide rates have only [decreased in Europe](https://ourworldindata.org/homicides) as capitalism takes over the continent. For horizontal comparison, some of the more crime-haunted countries (Venezuela, Papua New Guinea, etc) have less established capitalist systems than [those with fewer crimes](https://worldpopulationreview.com/country-rankings/crime-rate-by-country) (Qatar, Taiwan, etc). Of course, this evidence has significant flaws as it does not control for other variables that may affect crimes. However, there is little evidence to directly verify the connection between capitalism and crimes. If a connection does exist, it has become buried by other more impactful variables. However, allow me to entertain an alternative hypothesis. What if human greeds require no systemic stimulus? What if capitalism simply gives people a new way to express their insatiable desires? As far as I can see, human greed and subsequent crimes require only two conditions. First, only finite resources are available. Second, finite resources have not become equally distributed to all people. These two reasons seem enough to compel many to crimes, and neither requires capitalism. In fact, from a historical perspective, one may argue capitalism has solved at least one of the two problems. The efficient production under capitalism has produced sufficient quantities of some resources for everyone (such as [food](https://foodfirst.org/publication/we-already-grow-enough-food-for-10-billion-people-and-still-cant-end-hunger/#:~:text=According%20to%20the%20Food%20and,world's%202050%20projected%20population%20peak.)). From this perspective, one may argue that capitalism has represented a step into progress in checking human greed and aggression. We already have enough of some resources for everyone, even though we do not have an equal means of distributing them. As awful as that statement seems, it fairs better than most other stages in human history. I would be the first to admit that this opinion has more speculation than evidence. However, one can say the same about those preaching criminogenic capitalism. It seems to be much more likely that the so-called capitalist greed represents merely general greed. Humans’ insatiable desires transcend any models of production. Hence, it seems unfair and biased to blame crimes on capitalism.

**TL;DR – Marxist theory shows how Capitalism is indeed criminogenic; and it’s really interesting.** The Marxist [ideology](https://revisesociology.com/2016/06/04/marxist-theory-crime/) behind capitalism being criminogenic is that crime is a “natural outgrowth of the capitalist system because the criminal justice system works for the benefits of elites and against the lower social classes.” The basic idea here is that power is held by the Bourgeoisie and laws and governing systems reflect their interests. These institutions control the masses, prevent revolution, and keep people in a state of false consciousness. The four main factors are as follows: “Capitalism is criminogenic – the Capitalist system encourages criminal behaviour. The Law – made by the Capitalist elite and tends to work in their interests. All classes commit crimes – the crimes of the Capitalist class are more costly than street crime. Selective Law Enforcement – The Criminal Justice system mainly concerns itself with policing and punishing the marginalised, not the wealthy, and this performs ideological functions for the elite classes.” Directly influencing *Capitalism is criminogenic* as an idea, Marx acknowledges that Capitalism encourages self-interest over public duty, makes us aspire to have unattainable lifestyles, and generates massive inequality which contributes to higher crime rates.